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Am I alone in believing that it is so important to have discussed it with partner beforehand the differentiation between these various rebid/suit-raise hands. As is almost always the case, an agreement to play a bad method is better than no agreement at all. In this 1-Pass-1-Pass-??? sequence alone, how would you bid these other hands differently from the actual East cards:>AK1062102KQJ1052>A1062A2KQJ10523>AK106102QJ1052AK>J1062A10KQJ1052A
Our adopted East bid 3, West bid 3NT and East reverted to spades.

If you were West, how would you play 4 on a heart to South's ace, J ducked, and a third heart to force dummy?
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